I want to make it clear, as mentioned earlier too, my grandfather had property in gujarat & Mumbai, now my Grand-father expired suddenly without any will, in 1990, and my grandmother expired in 2014, now my uncle's say that they have already given my daddy's share to him when he was alive through court settlement which was for the property in Gujarat that too just 60k they paid him. My Daddy was not living with us at that moment due to our family issue but was in touch with him as i used to help him financially every month for his medical expenses. Neither my uncle's or my Daddy told me anything about this till my Daddy expired in 2015, it was in his funeral that my uncle told me about this which was not the right time. When i asked them for the right's in property in mumbai & gujarat they said it was already given to your daddy when he was alive through court settlement in gujarat. When i asked them to show the paper's which my daddy had signed as oer them in court in Gujarat they refused to give me any copy for the same.
Now my point is can i claim my right in property as they had not informed me or other members except my daddy when it was settled in court in gujarat amongst them.
Can my Daddy sell his share of property without our concern, and can i claim the share in the same property as no concern for this was taken from me or my mummy too.
I what to know the correct procedure to challenge the settlement made by them in gujarat court without my concern, when they both knew my daddy has a son and a wife behind and have not taken any concern from me or my mummy for the same.